Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 27.06.2025 06:51
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
There's no rule.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Why are Trump's and Khan's experiences with authorities in the US and Pakistan similar?
You'll usually find your answer there.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
People with COPD had more carbon in their lungs than smokers in study - The Washington Post
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.